So, I have a friend who likes to get on a soap-box about how the Bible condemns homosexuality. Now, I have read the Bible cover to cover (except for about half of psalms and proverbs). There were some interesting finds, familiar stories and long rambling lists. Here though, I would like to discuss the views of the Biblical stance on the spectrum of sexualities as we understand it today. Let's start with the easy one:
Heterosexuality
Genesis 2:24 and Mark 10:7 state that "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This passage is one of the most quoted in reference to the Bible's PRO stance on heterosexuality. The "reason" in question is found in the previous verse in Genesis: "The man said, 'This is now bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called 'woman,' for she was taken out of man.'" Now, some people will also tell you that even though this particular woman was Eve, she was not Adam's first wife. Many cultures believe that Adam's first wife was a woman named Lilith, who was created at the same time as man, and not after from his rib. The legends surrounding Lilith tell of how she refused to submit to Adam and went as far to lie with Archangel Samael. One question that this raises is "Why did Adam have to have a new wife?" Aside from the fact that his first wife was a cheating whore, she was also the first feminist. So, does the Bible condemn feminists, whores, or women? Well, it's accepted that women are not condemned. The Bible does talk about promiscuous women and how they are foolish, sinful, and should be stoned to death, however, God commanded one of his servants, Hosea, to marry a whore, ergo it's possible that they can be redeemed. Several times throughout the Bible though, author's discuss women being subordinate to men, so who knows on the feminism note?
Anyway, we're discussing heterosexuality, not feminism. Many people never make it to the point of the Bible advocating heterosexuality, only the point of it condemning homosexuality. Paul, a disciple of Christ, tells the church in Corinth that "It is good for a man not to marry. But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband. The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control. I say this as a concession, not as a command." (1 Corinthians 7:1-6) Now we're getting somewhere. Here, Paul advocates celibacy, which will be discussed in a later section of this discussion. The interesting thing though is that Paul promotes marriage only because of immorality. Why would he do this? Was the sexual immorality he combating homosexuality, as many people believe, or was is promiscuity? Honestly, which seems more likely in this context?
Do I really have to answer for you? Really? Okay, *sigh* it's promiscuity, prostitution, frequent unprotected sexual activities among multiple individuals which often results in spreading STDs, STIs, children that parents can't afford, and lots of mental trauma.
So, while Paul does set up a heterosexual model, he does so out of concession not only for health reasons, but also for the primary logical reason, that heterosexuality is the only childbearing model of sexuality that we have.
And there we go. It doesn't sound as great as it did in my head, but it'll serve for now. Open comments time!
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